ITIL-4-PRACTITIONER-DEPLOYMENT-MANAGEMENT STUDY TOOL - 100% PASS FIRST-GRADE PEOPLECERT DETAILED ITIL-4-PRACTITIONER-DEPLOYMENT-MANAGEMENT ANSWERS

ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Study Tool - 100% Pass First-grade Peoplecert Detailed ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Answers

ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Study Tool - 100% Pass First-grade Peoplecert Detailed ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Answers

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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Key concepts: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and covers the fundamental purpose of Deployment Management. It highlights why the structured management of service deployment is crucial for delivering new or modified services into the live environment efficiently while minimizing disruption and ensuring continuity in business operations.
Topic 2
  • Practice success: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and explains how to achieve success with Deployment Management through the application of ITIL guiding principles. It focuses on strategies that help establish a robust and value-driven deployment approach that aligns with business objectives and delivers measurable outcomes.
Topic 3
  • Partners and suppliers: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and examines the influence of partners and suppliers in the deployment process. It highlights the importance of effective collaboration and communication with external stakeholders to ensure that deployments are delivered according to expectations and with minimal risks.
Topic 4
  • Roles and competencies: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Change Implementation Lead and focuses on identifying essential roles within Deployment Management and the competencies needed to perform them effectively. It explores how to position deployment responsibilities within an organization and what skill sets are necessary to ensure deployment tasks are carried out successfully.
Topic 5
  • Information and technology: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and explores how technology and information systems support deployment activities. It covers how tools and digital platforms can enhance the planning, tracking, and execution of deployment efforts, ultimately contributing to more reliable and streamlined service rollouts.
Topic 6
  • The ITIL Capability model: This section of the exam measures the skills of a Service Transition Manager and introduces how capability criteria contribute to developing and maturing Deployment Management practices. It focuses on aligning organizational capabilities with ITIL best practices to maintain consistency, quality, and effectiveness in service transitions.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q11-Q16):

NEW QUESTION # 11
[Integrate Deployment Management with Other Practices]
A large multi-national organization uses DevOps principles to enable fast and effective development and implementation of software products. Each product team has a lot of independence, but a centralized IT governance team ensures consistency and adherence to the organization's policies. Different people within the organization have different opinions about whether deployment management should be centralized or distributed among the teams. How should the deployment management practice be implemented and managed in this organization to ensure that the practice meets their needs?

  • A. Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team
  • B. A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams
  • C. A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling
  • D. Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a DevOps environment with independent product teams and centralized governance, ITIL 4 recommends balancing autonomy with consistency. Option C, where a centralized deployment management team supports product teams by providing guidance and tooling, aligns with this approach. It ensures that teams retain flexibility to deploy efficiently while benefiting from standardized tools, best practices, and governance, maintaining organizational alignment and reducing risks of inconsistency.
Option A (Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team): Incorrect, as fully independent deployment managers per team could lead to inconsistent practices and tools, undermining centralized governance and creating silos.
Option B (A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams): Incorrect, as centralizing all deployment activities reduces team autonomy, contradicting DevOps principles of empowering teams and slowing down delivery.
Option C (A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling): Correct, as it supports DevOps autonomy while ensuring consistency through shared tools (e.g., CI/CD pipelines) and guidance, aligning with ITIL 4's focus on value co-creation and governance.
Option D (Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop): Incorrect, as while developers often handle deployments in DevOps, completely bypassing a structured deployment management practice risks non-compliance with governance and inconsistent outcomes.


NEW QUESTION # 12
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
An organization is deploying new software and new servers to support a service that will be launched soon. Which TWO of these activities should the organization conduct as part of the 'verification of the service components' activity of the 'deployment lifecycle management' process?
Checking that the correct models of server have been supplied
Testing the software for defects
Creating a schedule for installing the new servers
Installing the new software to the newly installed servers

  • A. 3 and 4
  • B. 1 and 2
  • C. 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the 'verification of service components' activity within the deployment lifecycle management process ensures that delivered components meet specifications before deployment. The correct activities are:
Activity 1 (Checking that the correct models of server have been supplied): Part of verification, as it confirms that the hardware components match requirements.
Activity 2 (Testing the software for defects): Part of verification, as it ensures the software is functional and free of critical issues before deployment.
Activity 3 (Creating a schedule for installing the new servers): Incorrect, as scheduling is a planning activity, not verification.
Activity 4 (Installing the new software to the newly installed servers): Incorrect, as installation is part of the deployment execution, not verification.


NEW QUESTION # 13
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?

  • A. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
  • B. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
  • C. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment
  • D. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment

Answer: B

Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.


NEW QUESTION # 14
[Use Tools and Techniques for Deployment]
An organization manually notifies its development and operations teams about potentially faulty deployments. Which tools should be used to automate this process?

  • A. Environment configuration and management tools
  • B. Work planning and prioritization tools
  • C. Workflow management and collaboration tools
  • D. Service configuration management tools

Answer: C

Explanation:
Automating notifications about faulty deployments requires tools that facilitate communication and process orchestration between teams. ITIL 4 recommends workflow management and collaboration tools (Option B), such as Slack, Microsoft Teams, or ServiceNow, to automate alerts, streamline communication, and ensure timely responses to deployment issues.
Option A (Service configuration management tools): Incorrect, as these tools manage configuration item data in a CMDB, not notifications or team communication.
Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools): Correct, as these tools automate notifications and enable seamless collaboration between development and operations teams, addressing the issue directly.
Option C (Work planning and prioritization tools): Incorrect, as tools like Jira focus on task management, not real-time notification automation.
Option D (Environment configuration and management tools): Incorrect, as these tools (e.g., Puppet) manage environment setups, not team notifications.


NEW QUESTION # 15
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
An IT service provider is using continuous integration and is considering the introduction of continuous delivery. Which is a benefit of this proposed change for the service provider?

  • A. Code is tested iteratively and frequently
  • B. Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent
  • C. Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code
  • D. Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.
Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.
Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.
Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.
Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.


NEW QUESTION # 16
......

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